| Exam Code | CISA |
| Exam Name | Certified Information Systems Auditor |
| Vendor | ISACA |
| Total Questions | 1525 |
| Last Updated | 26-Oct, 2026 |
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Free CISA Practice Questions
Explore 7 free practice questions for the ISACA CISA exam and review the answers and explanations to support your preparation.
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Question 1
Single answerWhich of the following BEST enables the timely identification of risk exposure?
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Option A:Correct
External audit review
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Option B:Correct
Internal audit review
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Option C:Correct
Control self-assessment (CSA)
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Option D:Correct
Stress testing
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Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that enables business managers and staff to assess and improve the effectiveness of their own controls and risk management processes. CSA can best enable the timely identification of risk exposure, as it allows for continuous monitoring and reporting of risks by those who are closest to the business processes and activities. External audit review, internal audit review, and stress testing are also useful methods for identifying risk exposure, but they are not as timely as CSA, as they are performed periodically or on demand by external or internal parties who may not have as much insight into the business operations and environment. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 95.
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Question 2
Single answerA hearth care organization utilizes Internet of Things (loT) devices to improve patient outcomes through real-time patient monitoring and advanced diagnostics. Which of the following would BEST assist in isolating these devices from corporate network traffic?
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Option A:Correct
Internal firewalls
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Option B:Correct
Blockchain technology
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Option C:Correct
Content filtering proxy
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Option D:Correct
Zero Trust architecture
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
nternal firewalls are highly effective for isolating Internet of Things (IoT) devices from corporate network traffic. By segmenting the network and restricting communication between devices and the main corporate infrastructure, internal firewalls help mitigate the risk of lateral movement and data breaches caused by compromised IoT devices.
Blockchain Technology (Option B):This is useful for ensuring data integrity but not for network isolation.
Content Filtering Proxy (Option C):This is designed to manage web traffic and does not provide network segmentation.
Zero Trust Architecture (Option D):While Zero Trust provides robust access controls, internal firewalls are more directly suited for traffic isolation.
[Reference:ISACA CISA Review Manual, Job Practice Area 4: Protection of Information Assets., , , , , , , , ] -
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Question 3
Single answerAn IT governance body wants to determine whether IT service delivery is based on consistently effective processes. Which of the following is the BEST approach?
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Option A:Correct
The application operations manual contains procedures to ensure emergency fixes do not compromise system integrity.
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Option B:Correct
Special logon IDs are used to grant programmers permanent access to the production environment.
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Option C:Correct
Change management controls are retroactively applied.
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Option D:Correct
Emergency changes are applied to production libraries immediately.
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Correct Answer: A
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Question 4
Single answerWhich of the following BEST facilitates the legal process in the event of an incident?
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Option A:Correct
Right to perform e-discovery
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Option B:Correct
Advice from legal counsel
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Option C:Correct
Preserving the chain of custody
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Option D:Correct
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Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The best way to facilitate the legal process in the event of an incident is to preserve the chain of custody of the evidence. The chain of custody is a record of who handled, accessed, or modified the evidence, when, where, how, and why. The chain of custody helps to ensure the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in a court of law. The chain of custody also helps to prevent tampering, alteration, or loss of evidence that could compromise the investigation or the prosecution. References:
CISAReview Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers and Explanations Database
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Question 5
Single answerWhich of the following provides the BEST providence that outsourced provider services are being properly managed?
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Option A:Correct
The service level agreement (SLA) includes penalties for non-performance.
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Option B:Correct
Adequate action is taken for noncompliance with the service level agreement (SLA).
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Option C:Correct
The vendor provides historical data to demonstrate its performance.
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Option D:Correct
Internal performance standards align with corporate strategy.
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Adequate action taken for noncompliance with the service level agreement (SLA) provides the best evidence that outsourced provider services are being properly managed. This shows that the organization is monitoring the performance of the provider and enforcing the terms of the SLA.
The other options are not as convincing as evidence of proper management. Option A, the SLA includes penalties for non-performance, is a good practice but does not guarantee that the penalties are actually applied or that the performance is satisfactory. Option C, the vendor provides historical data to demonstrate its performance, is not reliable because the data may be biased or inaccurate. Option D, internal performance standards align with corporate strategy, is irrelevant to the question of outsourced provider management.
[References:, ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, page 2821, ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription, QID 1066692, , , , , , , ] -
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Question 6
Single answerWhich of the following BEST helps to determine an organization’s data availability approach in the event of a disaster?
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Option A:Correct
Maximum tolerable outage (MTO).
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Option B:Correct
Recovery point objective (RPO).
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Option C:Correct
Cost-benefit analysis.
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Option D:Correct
Service delivery objective (SDO).
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Recovery point objective (RPO).
RPO is the best answer because the question focuses on data availability. RPO defines the point in time to which data must be recoverable after a disruption. In practical terms, it determines how much data loss the organization can tolerate and therefore influences the data backup, replication, synchronization, and recovery approach.
ISACA’s contingency planning guidance states that RPO represents the point in time before a disruption to which business process data can be recovered, based on the most recent backup copy. ISACA also explains that RPO is a factor of how much data loss the mission or business process can tolerate during recovery.
Option A is not the best answer because MTO addresses how long a critical function or system can be disrupted before significant harm occurs. It is more focused on outage duration than data currency. Option C is not the best answer because cost-benefit analysis helps choose among recovery options, but it does not define the data recovery requirement. Option D is not the best answer because SDO refers to the level of service required during alternate processing until normal operations are restored. ISACA’s glossary distinguishes MTO and SDO from RPO.
This question maps to Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, because ISACA’s CISA Exam Content Outline includes business continuity, disaster recovery, data backup, storage, and restoration under Domain 4.
[References: ISACA CISA Exam Content Outline, Domain 4; ISACA Journal, Information System Contingency Planning Guidance; ISACA Interactive Glossary, “Maximum tolerable outage” and “Service delivery objective.”, ===================, ] -
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Question 7
Single answerWhich of the following is the BEST detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission?
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Option A:Correct
Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management.
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Option B:Correct
Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP).
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Option C:Correct
Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review.
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Option D:Correct
Job failure alerts are automatically generated and routed to support personnel.
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
The best detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission is job failure alerts that are automatically generated and routed to support personnel. Job failure alerts are notifications that indicate when a scheduled job or task fails to execute or complete successfully, such as due to errors, interruptions, or delays. Job failure alerts can help detect and correct any issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission by informing and alerting the support personnel who can investigate and resolve the problem. The other options are not as effective as job failure alerts in detecting issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission, as they do not provide timely or specific information or feedback. Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management is a reporting technique that can help measure and improve the performance and reliability of the job scheduling process, but it does not provide immediate or detailed information on individual job failures. Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a preventive control that can help ensure the timeliness and security of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not detect any issues or anomalies that may occur during the process. Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review is a logging technique that can help record and track the status and results of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not provide real-time or proactive information on job failures. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2
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