| Exam Code | NAPLEX |
| Exam Name | NABP North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination |
| Vendor | NABP |
| Total Questions | 155 |
| Last Updated | 26-Oct, 2026 |
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Free NAPLEX Practice Questions
Explore 6 free practice questions for the NABP NAPLEX exam and review the answers and explanations to support your preparation.
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Question 1
Single answerWhich of the following representsthe major route of metabolism for acetaminophen?
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Option A:Correct
Glucuronidation
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Option B:Correct
Sulfation
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Option C:Correct
Cytochrome P-450 oxidation
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Option D:Correct
Direct renal excretion
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Option E:Correct
Plasma breakdown
Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Acetaminophen is metabolized by choices A through D. The major route is glucuronidation catalyzed by UDP- glucuronyl transferase in the liver. Sulfation is the next most common route and is the target mechanism for NAC therapy. Oxidation by cytochrome P-450 results in the formation of N-acetyl-pbenzoquinone imine, which is responsible for the hepatic necrosis caused by acetaminophen overdose. Direct renal excretion represents approximately 5% of the metabolism of acetaminophen. Plasma metabolism of acetaminophen does not generally occur.
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Question 2
Single answerA 15-year-old presents with 6 days of nasal congestion with thin, clear rhinorrhe
a. She notes mild facial pain but has had no fevers.
She feels her symptoms are improving. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
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Option A:Correct
Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Option B:Correct
Viral
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Option C:Correct
Moraxella catarrhalis
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Option D:Correct
Haemophilus influenzae
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Option E:Correct
Staphylococcus aureus
Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
This patient shows symptoms of acute sinusitis. The most common etiology of which is viruses. Indications that an infection is viral as opposed to bacterial included a shorter infection tie (less than 10 days) and no purulent discharge (hers is watery). She does not show any evidence of a complication developing and even notes that her symptoms are improving. If her symptoms were attributed to a bacterium, then the most common cause of acute sinusitis is Streptococcus pneumoniae followed by Haemophilus influenza, then Moraxella catarrhalis. Anaerobic species such as Bacteroides fragilis and Staphylococcus aureus are more commonly found in patients with chronic sinusitis (sinusitis lasting longer than 12 weeks). This is important to realize before indiscriminately providing antibiotics for these patients.
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Question 3
Single answerA 72-year-old woman suffers from a major depressive episode. She has a history of coronary artery disease, atrial fibrillation on anticoagulation therapy, sick sinus syndrome, glaucoma, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Which of the following medications is most appropriate for the treatment of her depression?
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Option A:Correct
Amitriptyline
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Option B:Correct
Nortriptyline
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Option C:Correct
Doxepin
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Option D:Correct
Fluvoxamine
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Option E:Correct
Escitalopram
Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
In older adults, selection of antidepressant medication should be done with various considerations in mind, most notably side effects and risk of drug-drug interactions. The tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), as discussed on
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Question 4
Single answerPyridoxine is often used in pregnancy to manage which of the following conditions?-
Option A:Correct
Hot flushes
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Option B:Correct
Diarrhea
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Option C:Correct
Nausea / vomiting
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Option D:Correct
Mood disturbances
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Option E:Correct
Insomnia
Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Pyridoxine is combined with doxylamine to treat morning sickness in pregnant women.
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Question 5
Single answerJK is a 67 years old African American man who presents to your clinic for his blood pressure management. His past medical history includes Peptic ulcer disease and hypertension. His two BP readings are 160/98, 159/96 and HR 85. He says he has been adherent to his medication and lifestyle. He currently takes 12.5mg Chlorthalidone and Prilosec 20mg daily.
Which of the following is the best strategy to manage his blood pressure?
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Option A:Correct
Increase chlorthalidone to 25mg daily
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Option B:Correct
Add Norvasc 2.5 daily
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Option C:Correct
Add Lisinopril 5mg daily
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Option D:Correct
Add hydrochlorothiazide 25mg daily
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Option E:Correct
Add Lisinopril 20mg daily
Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
As the patient is over the age of 60 and he does not have CKD or diabetes, his goal BP should be SBP < 150 mmHg or DBP < 90 mmHg, and he is not currently at this goal with his medication regimen. Options are to maximize the current medication dosage (option A), or to add a second agent. Since calcium channel blockers like Norvasc are recommended as initial treatment options in African Americans, choosing Norvasc over lisinopril would probably be the more effective option.
http://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/1791497
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Question 6
Single answerJT is a 58-year-old women who is on vancomycin empirically for pyomyositis confirmed by MRI. Surgical debridement has successfully removed infected tissue and pus. C&S of the infected tissue comes back MSSA sensitive to everything on the panel. JT is allergic to PCN (rash), she has had cephalosporin for her UTI in the past with no problem.
What would be the most appropriate antibiotics to switch to while JT is still in the hospital?
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Option A:Correct
Oxacillin
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Option B:Correct
Doxycycline
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Option C:Correct
Ceftaroline
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Option D:Correct
Daptomycin
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Option E:Correct
Cefazolin
Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Cefazolin or an antistaphylococcal penicillin (oxacillin or nafcillin) is recommended for this patient because the C&S results indicate MSSA. Since the patient develops a rash to penicillins, it would be acceptable to use cefazolin in this case.
https://academic.oup.com/cid/article/59/2/e10/2895845/Practice-Guidelines-for-the-Diagnosis-and
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