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Exam Code NAPLEX
Exam Name NABP North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination
Vendor NABP
Total Questions 155
Last Updated 26-Oct, 2026
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Free NAPLEX Practice Questions

Explore 6 free practice questions for the NABP NAPLEX exam and review the answers and explanations to support your preparation.

  1. Question 1

    Single answer

    Which of the following representsthe major route of metabolism for acetaminophen? 

    • Option A:

      Glucuronidation

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Sulfation

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Cytochrome P-450 oxidation 

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Direct renal excretion

      Correct
    • Option E:

      Plasma breakdown

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: A

    Explanation

    Acetaminophen is metabolized by choices A through D. The major route is glucuronidation catalyzed by UDP- glucuronyl transferase in the liver. Sulfation is the next most common route and is the target mechanism for NAC therapy. Oxidation by cytochrome P-450 results in the formation of N-acetyl-pbenzoquinone imine, which is responsible for the hepatic necrosis caused by acetaminophen overdose. Direct renal excretion represents approximately 5% of the metabolism of acetaminophen. Plasma metabolism of acetaminophen does not generally occur.

  2. Question 2

    Single answer

    A 15-year-old presents with 6 days of nasal congestion with thin, clear rhinorrhe

    a. She notes mild facial pain but has had no fevers.


    She feels her symptoms are improving. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms? 

    • Option A:

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Viral

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Moraxella catarrhalis 

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct
    • Option E:

      Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: B

    Explanation

    This patient shows symptoms of acute sinusitis. The most common etiology of which is viruses. Indications that an infection is viral as opposed to bacterial included a shorter infection tie (less than 10 days) and no purulent discharge (hers is watery). She does not show any evidence of a complication developing and even notes that her symptoms are improving. If her symptoms were attributed to a bacterium, then the most common cause of acute sinusitis is Streptococcus pneumoniae followed by Haemophilus influenza, then Moraxella catarrhalis. Anaerobic species such as Bacteroides fragilis and Staphylococcus aureus are more commonly found in patients with chronic sinusitis (sinusitis lasting longer than 12 weeks). This is important to realize before indiscriminately providing antibiotics for these patients.

  3. Question 3

    Single answer

    A 72-year-old woman suffers from a major depressive episode. She has a history of coronary artery disease, atrial fibrillation on anticoagulation therapy, sick sinus syndrome, glaucoma, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

    Which of the following medications is most appropriate for the treatment of her depression? 

    • Option A:

      Amitriptyline

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Nortriptyline 

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Doxepin

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Fluvoxamine 

      Correct
    • Option E:

      Escitalopram 

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: E

    Explanation

    In older adults, selection of antidepressant medication should be done with various considerations in mind, most notably side effects and risk of drug-drug interactions. The tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), as discussed on

  4. Question 4

    Single answer
    Pyridoxine is often used in pregnancy to manage which of the following conditions?
    • Option A:

      Hot flushes

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Diarrhea

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Nausea / vomiting

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Mood disturbances

      Correct
    • Option E:

      Insomnia

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: C

    Explanation

    Pyridoxine is combined with doxylamine to treat morning sickness in pregnant women.

  5. Question 5

    Single answer

    JK is a 67 years old African American man who presents to your clinic for his blood pressure management. His past medical history includes Peptic ulcer disease and hypertension. His two BP readings are 160/98, 159/96 and HR 85. He says he has been adherent to his medication and lifestyle. He currently takes 12.5mg Chlorthalidone and Prilosec 20mg daily.


    Which of the following is the best strategy to manage his blood pressure?

    • Option A:

      Increase chlorthalidone to 25mg daily

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Add Norvasc 2.5 daily

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Add Lisinopril 5mg daily

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Add hydrochlorothiazide 25mg daily

      Correct
    • Option E:

      Add Lisinopril 20mg daily

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: B

    Explanation

    As the patient is over the age of 60 and he does not have CKD or diabetes, his goal BP should be SBP < 150 mmHg or DBP < 90 mmHg, and he is not currently at this goal with his medication regimen. Options are to maximize the current medication dosage (option A), or to add a second agent. Since calcium channel blockers like Norvasc are recommended as initial treatment options in African Americans, choosing Norvasc over lisinopril would probably be the more effective option.


    http://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/1791497

  6. Question 6

    Single answer

    JT is a 58-year-old women who is on vancomycin empirically for pyomyositis confirmed by MRI. Surgical debridement has successfully removed infected tissue and pus. C&S of the infected tissue comes back MSSA sensitive to everything on the panel. JT is allergic to PCN (rash), she has had cephalosporin for her UTI in the past with no problem.


    What would be the most appropriate antibiotics to switch to while JT is still in the hospital?

    • Option A:

      Oxacillin

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Doxycycline

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Ceftaroline

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Daptomycin

      Correct
    • Option E:

      Cefazolin

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: E

    Explanation

    Cefazolin or an antistaphylococcal penicillin (oxacillin or nafcillin) is recommended for this patient because the C&S results indicate MSSA. Since the patient develops a rash to penicillins, it would be acceptable to use cefazolin in this case.


    https://academic.oup.com/cid/article/59/2/e10/2895845/Practice-Guidelines-for-the-Diagnosis-and