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Exam Code ISO-45001-Lead-Auditor
Exam Name PECB Certified ISO 45001 Lead Auditor Exam
Vendor PECB
Total Questions 70
Last Updated 26-Oct, 2026
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Free ISO-45001-Lead-Auditor Practice Questions

Explore 10 free practice questions for the PECB ISO-45001-Lead-Auditor exam and review the answers and explanations to support your preparation.

  1. Question 1

    Single answer

    During a second-party audit at a sawmill, you find that the OHSMS Manager conducted the hazard identification process. In the risk assessment report, hazards were listed as physical hazards, chemical hazards, biological hazards and psychosocial hazards, with the hazards categories as low medium and high to be addressed. The OHSMS Manager did not have an action plan for low and medium risks, saying that they ignored those He stated that they brought in a health and safety consultant to advise on treatment for the high risks. When interviewing the OHSMS Manager, the auditor presents a nonconformity relating to potential hazards In the factory If the dust extraction system broke down. The OHSMS Manager said that. If that happened, the agreed planned action is that workers would put masks on. Select one of the options for how the auditorshould respond to this statement.

    • Option A:

      Advise that the factory should cease its operations It the dust extraction equipment malfunctioned.

      Correct
    • Option B:

       Ask the OH5MS Manager to confirm that this action meets regulatory requirements for air purity.

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Seek evidence that the response action is both Implemented and effective. 

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Suggest that they should increase their maintenance checks.

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: C

    Explanation

    The auditor should assess whether the organization's planned action (using masks in case of dust extraction failure) is both implemented and effective. This aligns with ISO 45001 requirements to ensure that control measures are functional and meet the intended objectives. Clause 8.1.2 (Hierarchy of Controls): The use of PPE, such as masks, is considered a last resort in the hierarchy of controls. The organization must demonstrate that the measure is: Implemented (e.g., PPE is available and workers are trained to use it). Effective (e.g., masks provide adequate protection against dust). Analysis of Options: A . Advise that the factory should cease operations if the dust extraction equipment malfunctioned. While ceasing operations may be a necessary control in extreme situations, it is not a practical or realistic recommendation unless a high-risk scenario cannot be otherwise managed. B . Ask the OHSMS Manager to confirm regulatory compliance. Regulatory compliance is important but does not fully address the requirement to ensure the action is effective. C . Seek evidence that the response action is both implemented and effective. This is the most appropriate response. The auditor must verify implementation and effectiveness to determine conformity. D . Suggest increasing maintenance checks. Maintenance is important for preventing equipment breakdowns, but this option does not address the immediate audit finding about the adequacy of response actions. ISO Reference: Clause 8.1.2: Emphasizes applying the hierarchy of controls effectively. Clause 9.1.1: Requires monitoring and measuring controls to ensure effectiveness.

  2. Question 2

    Multiple answers

    You are an audit team leader conducting a Stage 2 audit of a Financial Services Provider. You are currently interviewing the organisation's Risk and Compliance Officer, who appears very competent when it comes to the management of business risks. As the Risk and Compliance Officer, she is also identified as having lead responsibility for the management of OH&S risk, and you are now seeking evidence that she understands the requirements relating to risk that are contained within ISO 45001. During your conversation, she makes the following six statements about risk within an ISO 45001-based OHSMS. Which four of his statements are correct?

    • Option A:

      The organisation must attempt to identify and address every risk it faces.

      Correct
    • Option B:

      The effect of uncertainty (i.e. risk) can result in positive outcomes as well as negative ones.

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Although organisations are required to carry out risk management, the method by which they do so is up to them.

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Risk assessment is an activity that must be carried out by top management.

      Correct
    • Option E:

      The organisation is required to assess risks arising from OH&S hazards.

      Correct
    • Option F:

      Risk is often expressed as a combination of likelihood and impact.

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: B, C, E, F

    Explanation

    Analysis of Options:

    A. The organisation must attempt to identify and address every risk it faces: Incorrect. ISO 45001 focuses on OH&S risks and not every risk faced by the organization.

    B. The effect of uncertainty (i.e. risk) can result in positive outcomes as well as negative ones: Correct. Clause 3.20 defines risk as the 'effect of uncertainty,' which may result in positive or negative outcomes.

    C. Although organisations are required to carry out risk management, the method by which they do so is up to them: Correct. ISO 45001 does not prescribe specific risk management methods, leaving the organization to choose the approach that best suits its context (Clause 6.1.2).

    D. Risk assessment is an activity that must be carried out by top management: Incorrect. Risk assessment can involve workers and other personnel; it is not limited to top management.

    E. The organisation is required to assess risks arising from OH&S hazards: Correct. Clause 6.1.2.2 requires organizations to assess OH&S risks associated with hazards.

    F. Risk is often expressed as a combination of likelihood and impact: Correct. This is a common way to express risk, aligned with Clause 6.1.2.

    ISO Reference:

    Clause 3.20: Definition of risk.

    Clause 6.1.2: Hazard identification and risk assessment

  3. Question 3

    Single answer

    You are auditing a site of Good Food Shack, a restaurant chain. In the kitchen area, you notice a halffilled open drum sitting in a pool of liquid, which is dribbling across a work are a. You ask the head Chef what is in the drum and are told it is waste the frying process. When you ask why it is kept there, You are told that it is not normally kept there, but it not a problem and says that he will arrange it to be moved to a storeroom and will give the floor a good clean. Look around the kitchen, you observe knives and cleavers lying around on worktops, staff wearing no protective gloves and a large pot of boiling water with nobody near it. There is no evidence of any fire extinguishers of fine blankets within sight. You decide to raise a nonconformance. Select one of the options that best describes the finding against clause 8.1.2 of ISO 45001.

    • Option A:

       Failure to reduce risks associated with working in the kitchen.

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Measures to prevents lippage in the kitchen from waste cooking oil were not taken.

      Correct
    • Option C:

       Staff are at risk of serious injury while working in the kitchen.

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Training of the kitchen staff was not effective enough to prevent poor safety awareness in the kitchen area.

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: A

    Explanation

    Comprehensive Detailed Explanation along with All ISO 45001 Audit Reference Clause 8.1.2 of ISO 45001 pertains to Eliminating Hazards and Reducing OH&S Risks. Organizations must implement appropriate controls to manage workplace hazards effectively. Issue Identified: The kitchen environment at the audited site presents multiple hazards, including: Oil spillage creating a slip hazard. Open drums of waste material posing a chemical or hygiene hazard. Unsecured knives and cleavers increasing the risk of cuts. Boiling water left unattended, posing a risk of burns. Lack of visible fire extinguishers or fire blankets, increasing fire risk. Analysis of Options: A . Failure to reduce risks associated with working in the kitchen. This option accurately captures the broader failure to implement effective measures to eliminate or reduce hazards across multiple areas in the kitchen. B . Measures to prevents lippage in the kitchen from waste cooking oil were not taken. This is specific to one hazard (oil spillage) and does not address other significant risks observed, such as fire safety or sharp tools. C . Staff are at risk of serious injury while working in the kitchen. While true, this is more of a general observation and does not address the root cause of the hazards or the failure of controls. D . Training of the kitchen staff was not effective enough to prevent poor safety awareness in the kitchen area. Although training deficiencies may contribute to the issue, this option does not reflect the overarching systemic failure to manage hazards effectively. Best Description of the Nonconformance: Failure to reduce risks associated with working in the kitchen (Option A) is the most comprehensive finding, reflecting the organization’s lack of adequate controls to mitigate hazards. ISO Reference: Clause 8.1.2: Organizations must establish controls to eliminate or minimize OH&S risks systematically. Clause 7.2: Ensuring competency through training is important but must be coupled with hazard control measures.

  4. Question 4

    Multiple answers

    An audit team leader prepares the audit plan for an initial Stage 2 certification audit. Which two of the following statements are false?

    • Option A:

      The organisation should review the audit plan for agreement.

      Correct
    • Option B:

      The audit team leader does not select the OHS audit team members. 

      Correct
    • Option C:

      The audit team leader should plan to interview each employee.

      Correct
    • Option D:

      The audit team leader should present the plan to the auditee before the Stage 2 audit.

      Correct
    • Option E:

       The plan does not need to include the names of the senior managers. 

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: B, C

    Explanation

    Comprehensive Detailed Explanation along with All ISO 45001 Audit Reference Analysis of Each Option: A . The organisation should review the audit plan for agreement. True. According to ISO 45001 guidelines and ISO 19011 (Guidelines for Auditing Management Systems), it is standard practice for the auditee organization to review and agree to the audit plan to ensure clarity on scope, objectives, and processes. Reference: ISO19011:2018, Clause 6.3.2. B . The audit team leader does not select the OHS audit team members. False. The audit team leader is responsible for selecting competent team members with the requisite expertise to evaluate the auditee’s Occupational Health & Safety Management System (OHSMS). Selection is based on criteria such as knowledge of ISO 45001, auditing skills, and understanding of the industry. Reference: ISO 19011:2018, Clause 5.4.2 and 6.3.1. C . The audit team leader should plan to interview each employee. False. While employee interviews are an essential part of gathering evidence during an ISO 45001 audit, interviewing every employee is impractical and unnecessary. A representative sampling strategy is used to assess compliance across various levels and departments. Reference: ISO19011:2018, Clause 6.4.6. D . The audit team leader should present the plan to the auditee before the Stage 2 audit. True. Presenting the audit plan to the auditee before the audit is essential to ensure all parties are informed and prepared for the audit. This practice is emphasized in ISO 19011 and supports transparency and effective audit execution. Reference: ISO19011:2018, Clause 6.3.3. E . The organisation should cancel staff leave during the audit. False. ISO 45001 and related audit guidelines do not mandate the cancellation ofstaff leave during audits. While key personnel should be available, the audit team collaborates with the organization to plan around leave schedules to minimize disruption. Reference: Not explicitly covered in ISO 45001 or ISO 19011; falls under planning discretion. F . The plan does not need to include the names of the senior managers. True. While the audit plan should outline the scope, objectives, and methods, it does not specifically require the inclusion of senior managers’ names unless they are directly involved in the audit. Reference: ISO 19011:2018, Clause 6.3.2. Key ISO Reference: ISO 45001:2018, Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit Requirements). ISO 19011:2018, Clauses 5.4.2, 6.3.1, 6.3.2, and 6.4.6. 

  5. Question 5

    Multiple answers

    When calculating an ISO 45001 third party initial audit duration, which two of the following statements are false?

    • Option A:

      Consider the number of functions related to OHS management 

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Consider the number of sites to be sampled 

      Correct
    • Option C:

      Include outsourced processes

      Correct
    • Option D:

      Include the time allocated for lunch breaks

      Correct
    • Option E:

      Incorporate the time taken to travel to/from the audit location

      Correct
    • Option F:

      Think about the complexity of the organization's business 

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: D, E

    Explanation

    Explanation: Comprehensive Detailed Explanation along with All ISO 45001 Audit Reference Analysis of Each Option: A . Consider the number of functions related to OHS management. True. The number of functions related to OHS management directly impacts the audit duration. More functions require additional time for the auditor to review documentation, processes, and implementation across those areas. Reference: IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.3.1 (factors affecting audit time). B . Consider the number of sites to be sampled. True. For multi-site organizations, the number of sites to be sampled is critical in calculating audit duration. Sampling requirements are determined using guidelines such as IAF MD 1:2022 and depend on the complexity, size, and risks associated with each site. Reference: IAF MD 1:2022, Clause 4.2. C . Include outsourced processes. True. Outsourced processes that affect the OHS management system must be evaluated as part of the audit. This includes reviewing the organization’s control over such processes. Auditing these aspects impacts the audit duration. Reference: ISO 45001:2018, Clause 8.1.4 and IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.3.1. D . Include the time allocated for lunch breaks. False. Lunch breaks are not considered part of the audit duration as they do not contribute to the assessment of the management system. Audit time calculations exclude non-working hours, including breaks. Reference: IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.5. E . Incorporate the time taken to travel to/from the audit location. False. Travel time is excluded when calculating the audit duration. While travel logistics are considered in audit planning, they do not count towards the total audit time. Reference: IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.5. F . Think about the complexity of the organization's business. True. The complexity of the organization’s business, including the nature of hazards, risks, and legal obligations, significantly affects the audit duration. More complex operations typically require longer audit times. Reference: IAF MD 5:2020, Clause 2.3.1. Key ISO and IAF Reference: ISO 45001:2018: Clause 9.2.2 (Audit Program). IAF MD 5:2020: “Determination of Audit Time of Quality and Environmental Management Systems.” IAF MD 1:2022: “Audit and Certification of Multiple Sites Based on Sampling.”

  6. Question 6

    Multiple answers

    Which two of the following options best determine the selection of an audit team member?

    • Option A:

      Has a history of serious complaints from auditees.

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Possess expert-level knowledge of each of the organisation ' s processes.


      Correct
    • Option C:

      Willingness to always cooperate with the audit team leader.


      Correct
    • Option D:

      Known for taking an unstructured approach that favours their own methods.


      Correct
    • Option E:

      Possess a detailed knowledge of the relevant statutory and regulatory background.


      Correct
    • Option F:

      Ability to clearly communicate findings in the management system to auditees.

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: E, F

    Explanation

    Audit-team selection must be competence based. Option E is appropriate because an OH and S auditor needs sufficient understanding of applicable statutory, regulatory and other requirements relevant to the organisation ' s activities. This enables the auditor to recognize applicable audit criteria and evaluate objective evidence in the correct regulatory context. Option F is also essential: auditors must communicate clearly during interviews, team discussions, audit findings and closing activities so that evidence and conclusions are accurately understood. An auditor does not need expert-level knowledge of every process; technical experts can supplement the team where specialized competence is required. A history of complaints, unquestioning cooperation with a leader or an intentionally unstructured personal approach are not valid competence criteria. ISO 19011 specifically frames auditor competence around knowledge, skills, professional behaviour and the ability of the overall audit team to achieve the audit objectives.

  7. Question 7

    Multiple answers

    An audit team leader prepares the audit plan for an initial Stage 2 certification audit. Which two of the following statements are true?

    • Option A:

      The auditee should review the audit plan for agreement.


      Correct
    • Option B:

      The audit team leader should plan to interview each employee.


      Correct
    • Option C:

      The organisation must provide hospitality for the audit team.


      Correct
    • Option D:

      The audit team leader should audit the Occupational Health and Safety Manager.


      Correct
    • Option E:

      The organisation should cancel all staff leave during the audit.


      Correct
    • Option F:

      The audit team leader must define the responsibilities of team members and observers.

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: A, F

    Explanation

    The correct answers are A and F.

    A. The auditee should review the audit plan for agreement is true because, in certification auditing practice, the audit plan is communicated to the client/auditee in advance and should be agreed regarding the practical arrangements for the audit. ISO guidance on certification auditing includes preparation of the audit plan and communication of the audit plan and audit team as part of planning audits. (ISO)

    F. The audit team leader must define the responsibilities of team members and observers is also true. ISO/IEC 17021-1 states that the audit team leader, in consultation with the audit team, shall assign to each team member responsibility for auditing specific processes, functions, sites, areas or activities. This is a direct audit-planning responsibility of the team leader. Observers are also part of the audit arrangements that must be defined and managed during planning. (IAS)

    Why the other statements are false:

    B. The audit team leader should plan to interview each employee is false. Certification audits are conducted using sampling, not by interviewing every employee. Audit evidence is gathered on a representative basis. (ISO)

    C. The organisation must provide hospitality for the audit team is false. Hospitality is not a certification requirement and can raise impartiality concerns.

    D. The audit team leader should audit the Occupational Health and Safety Manager is not a mandatory requirement. The audit plan must cover relevant processes, functions, activities and responsibilities, but it does not require the team leader personally to audit one named individual. (IAS)

    E. The organisation should cancel all staff leave during the audit is false. The auditee should ensure availability of relevant personnel as needed, but cancelling all leave is not an audit requirement.

    Therefore, the two true statements are:

    A, F

  8. Question 8

    Multiple answers

    You are the audit team leader of an ISO 45001 remote/space certification audit. Which two of the following topics would you need to discuss with the audit OHSMS legislation of the local authority, which has been

    • Option A:

      OHS accidents occurred since Stage 1 audit


      Correct
    • Option B:

      Access requirements for the virtual platform


      Correct
    • Option C:

      Any practical obstacles to the audit


      Correct
    • Option D:

      OHS management system hazards identification and risks evaluation process


      Correct
    • Option E:

      Results of the last regulatory audit


      Correct
    • Option F:

      Trends in the OHS indicators and associated objectives

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: B, C

  9. Question 9

    Single answer

    Which one of the following options is the definition of an interested party?

    • Option A:

      A person or organisation that can affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision or activity.

      Correct
    • Option B:

      An individual or organisation that can influence, be influenced by, or perceive itself to be influenced by a decision or activity.

      Correct
    • Option C:

      A group or organisation that can interfere in or perceive itself to be interfered with by a management decision.

      Correct
    • Option D:

      A third party that can appeal to an organisation when it perceives itself to be affected by a decision or activity.

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: A

    Explanation

    Option A reproduces the ISO management-system definition of an interested party: a person or organisation that can affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision or activity. This concept is fundamental to ISO 45001 Clause 4.2 because an organisation must determine relevant interested parties and their relevant needs and expectations when establishing its OHSMS context. Examples can include workers, contractors, regulators, suppliers, customers, neighbouring communities and other stakeholders. Options B, C and D alter the defined relationship by substituting terms such as “influence,” “interfere” or limiting the concept to a third party. Those formulations do not match the standardized ISO terminology. The same standardized interested-party wording is published in ISO ' s terminology resources.

  10. Question 10

    Single answer

    " ISO 45001:2018, in clauses 6.1.3 and 9.1.2, refers to " legal requirements and other requirements " . From the list below, select two that are " other requirements " .

    Note: ILO stands for " International Labour Organisation "

    NGO stands for " non-governmental organisation "

    • Option A:

      Opinions on legal compliance by a customer

      Correct
    • Option B:

      Requirements from neighbours


      Correct
    • Option C:

      Agreements between the organisation and workers

      Correct
    • Option D:

      ILO initiatives the organisation subscribes to

      Correct
    • Option E:

      Instructions on product use by customers


      Correct
    • Option F:

      Requirements established by the government

      Correct
    Show Answer & Explanation Hide Answer & Explanation

    Correct Answer: D